somevelvetmorning   07-15-2015, 04:23 PM
#1
I've seen a lot of criticism of this novel which states that Rasalom is wiping out humanity, which would leave him nothing to feast on after a few days. I can't remember where I saw this, but I always had the impression that he would cause an initial cataclysm, followed by an occupation of humanity where he could live off the suffering of others. I never got the impression that he would just wipe out humanity in a matter of weeks, but I've seen this called a "plot hole" in a couple of differen places. I'm curious to hear what others (including the doc) have to say about this. Thoughts?
fpw   07-16-2015, 08:22 AM
#2
This is the first I've heard it.

FPW
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somevelvetmorning   07-22-2015, 02:30 PM
#3
So I've been revisiting the books and thinking more about this, and I take back what I originally said. The books are pretty clear that the Otherness-ruled worls is intended to be toxic for humanity, so I do not think that Rasalom intended to keep anyone alive. So I guess the only question is, how does Rasalom "feed" after humanity is gone? Maybe he doesn't need to? I need to read Nightworld again.
Blake   07-30-2015, 10:26 AM
#4
Depends on your definition of "toxic." Toxic doesn't necessarily equal death.

The question makes me wonder, though, if the Otherness might not feed off of the suffering of the Ally once the scale of the loss is large enough. Once the world was taken, the loss could register as more significant to the Ally (despite really being a small "skirmish") in the same way the loss of a pawn in chess would.

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