bill1971   11-27-2010, 11:29 PM
#1
I was watching the movie Son of Dracula the other day. It is a movie in the 40's and Dracula calls himself Alucard(read backwords if you havent already). Anyhow I was wondering if that was an influence to all of the different versions of Rasalom's names? I wont say them here because some are sort of spoilerish.
fpw   11-28-2010, 10:06 AM
#2
bill1971 Wrote:I was watching the movie Son of Dracula the other day. It is a movie in the 40's and Dracula calls himself Alucard(read backwords if you havent already). Anyhow I was wondering if that was an influence to all of the different versions of Rasalom's names? I wont say them here because some are sort of spoilerish.
Good thought. Saw that ages ago, but it was certainly in the mind stew as I was writing. I wanted everything that Rasalom presented to be a lie...even his name.

FPW
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Peter   11-28-2010, 12:38 PM
#3
I have always understood that in a lot of "arcane law" names have power and if a person/creatures real name is known it can give the knower power over the named, remember Rumplestilkskin? And in J. Sheridan Le Fanu's story (whose name I have dumbly forgotten but was filmed as "The Vampire Lovers") the central character Carmilla changed her name to Mircalla to avoid detection. I'm sure there are other examples.

Perhaps this was an influence as well?

ps I have NO objection to influences at all! It's the writing and story that count.

Well, I've never seen one do THAT before
  
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